Answers to Quiz 1. 1. Compared to S34, the radioactive isotope S35 has a. a different atomic number b. one more neutron c. one more proton d. one more electron e. a positive charge ANSWER: b. 2. T or F (please circle) A cation is an atom that has fewer electrons than does a neutral atom of the same element. ANSWER: T 3. Knowing the valences of C, O, N, S, and Al, and H; which of the following molecules is not likely to exist? a. c. b. d. e. ANSWER: b. (there were only 3 bonds not four to the C) 4. T or F (please circle) Prokaryotic organisms are cells that lack a plasma membrane but do contain DNA for replication. ANSWER: F 5. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with regards to the themes of biology? a. Humans are classified in the Domain Eukarya. b. A theory is a comprehensive explanation supported by abundant evidence. c. Life requires the continual uptake of ordered energy and the release of unordered energy into the environment. d. The most abundant animal on earth is the insect. e. Similar organelles are grouped together to form tissues, while tissues are grouped together to form organs. ANSWER: e. 6. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine for the discovery of DNA? a. Crick b. Fleming c. Darwin d. Hooke e. Van der Waal ANSWER: a. 7. Of the following elements, which is least prevalent in our body? a. Ca b. N c. Cl d. Fe e. P ANSWER: d. 8. If your dentist told you to gargle in salt water (NaCl), then the sodium would be a(n) a. solvent b. solution c. anion d. positron e. solute ANSWER: e. 9. Given the following information, how much MgCl2 would you weight out if you wanted to make 400 ul of a 2M solution? Mg = 12 electrons Cl = 17 electrons For calculation purposes assume that mass number = atomic weight a. 92 g b. 18.4 g c. 0.0736 g d. 0.0344 g e. cannot be determined with provided variables ANSWER: c. 10. A solution with a hydroxide ion concentration of 0.0001 a. is very acidic b. has a pH of 10-4M c. has a pH of 4 d. has a pH of 10-10M e. has a pH of 10 ANSWER: e. 11. The _____________ is the smallest unit of matter while the __________________ is the smallest unit of life. a. electron, nucleus b. orbital, molecule c. neutron, DNA d. molecule, electron e. atom, cell ANSWER: e. Answers to Quiz 2. 1. Which of the following are always found on the outside face of the plasma membrane, called the extracellular side? a. cholesterol b. ion channels c. the Na/K ATPase pump d. carbohydrates e. unsaturated H-C tails ANSWER: d. 2. True (mark A) or False (mark B) Cellular respiration is an exergonic reaction because it has a negative ?G, is a spontaneous process, and energy will be made available to do work. ANSWER: True 3. Which of the following organelles functions to synthesize or make lipids? a. the golgi apparatus b. thylakoids c. mitochondria d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum e. the nuceolus ANSWER: d. 4. Which of the following is reduced by enzymes to speed the rate of reactions? a. the chemical bonds b. the free energy c. the activation energy d. the products e. the co-factors ANSWER: c. 5. An inhibitor that blocks the active site of an enzyme is referred to as a. a co-factor b. a noncompetitive inhibitor c. a competitive inhibitor d. an induced fit e. feedback inhibition ANSWER: c. 6. Which of the following types of microscopes uses electron beams that are bent using electromagnets to magnify the image? a. light microscope b. Nomarski optics c. confocal microscope d. electron microscope e. cell fractioning microscope ANSWER: d. 7. Which of the following organelles or compartments is found in plant as well as animal cells? a. plasmodesmata b. stroma c. tonoplast d. central vacuole e. nuclear envelope ANSWER: e. 8. According to the mathematical equation for free energy (?G), which condition would you surmise would be indicative of an anabolic pathway? a. increase in temperature b. more order or a decrease in entropy c. a decrease in enthalpy d. increase in enzyme production e. None of the above ANSWER: b. 9. Which of the following functional group(s) or arrangements would you NOT find in a molecule of adenosine trisphosphate (ATP)? a. three phosphate groups b. ribose c. carbon ring groups d. arginine e. hydroxyl groups ANSWER: d. 10. True (mark A) or False (mark B) Enzymes can react with specific substrate at a rate of 1000 times per second and each time emerge in their original form (never consumed or used up). ANSWER: True 11. If an endogonic reaction requires 32 kcal/mol of energy to be consumed to do work, then about how many ATP molecules will you have to have to drive the reaction spontaneously (to obtain a negative ?G)? (Hint: what is the ?G for one ATP hydrolysis?) a. 1 molecule b. 2 molecules c. 3 molecules d. 4 molecules e. 5 molecules ANSWER: e. (7.3 kcal/mol x 5 would be enought to cover the 32 required to yield negative delta G) PRACTICE OSMOLARITY BASED CALCULATIONS (LIKE IN CHAPTER 7 SELF-QUIZ questions 6-10) FOR YOUR SECOND HOUR EXAM OVER THE WEEKEND!!!!! Answers to Quiz 3. 1. If a competitive inhibitor blocked the activity of co-enzyme A, so that acetyl CoA could not enter the Krebís Cycle..... what would be the net ATP yield from 2 molecules of glucose in the presence of oxygen? a. 2 ATP b. 8 ATP c. 16 ATP d. 28 ATP e. 36 ATP ANSWER: d. 2. In the Chemiosmotic Hypothesis, H ions flow down the concentration gradient established by the inner mitochondrial membrane (IMM) and activate what enzyme to produce ATP? a. phosphofructose kinase b. ATP synthase c. dehydrogenase d. cytochrome c e. substrate level phosphorylation ANSWER: b. 3. How many total molecules of ATP would be generated by the Krebís Cycle if the FADH2 electron carriers were NOT operational (assume oxygen)? a. 2 b. 12 c. 18 d. 20 e. 24 ANSWER: d. 4. T or F In cellular respiration, the fuel glucose is oxidized and oxygen is reduced. Electrons lose potential energy along the way and energy in the form of 38 ATP is released. ANSWER: T 5. Which of the following statements concerning photosynthesis is CORRECT? a. Light is absorbed by chlorophyll during the Calvin Cycle. b. FADPH and ATP are generated during the light cycle to power the Calvin Cycle. c. The site of the light reactions is the stroma of the chloroplast. d. The porphryin ring is used to trap electrons in the reaction center. e. Cyclic photophosphorylation produces neither oxygen or NADPH. ANSWER: e. 6. T or F The live oak tree has green leaves because the chlorophyll a contained in the thylakoid membrane within a photosystem transmits nearly 100% of green light that is roughly 500-600 nm in the visible light spectrum. ANSWER: T 7. You come across your young nephew that has a large gum ball caught in his throat and cannot breathe oxygen. How many net ATP will he produce from 8 molecules of glucose if he cannot undergo oxidative phosphorylation and the pyruvate shuttle pump is unoperational? a. 4 ATP b. 8 ATP c. 16 ATP d. 32 ATP e. 48 ATP ANSWER: c. 8. If you discovered a new life form that used a similar electron transport chain as that of humans, how many total ATP could be produced in a metabolic pathway that yielded 3 NADH and 6 FADH2? a. 9 ATP b. 18 ATP c. 21 ATP d. 24 ATP e. 30 ATP ANSWER: c. 9. Most CO2 from catabolism is released during a. glycolysis b. the citric acid cycle (Krebís) c. lactate fermentation d. electron transport e. oxidative phosphorylation ANSWER: b. 10. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT distinction between cyclic and noncyclic electron flow? a. Only noncyclic electron flow produces ATP. b. In addition to ATP, cyclic electron flow also produces O2 and NADPH. c. Only cyclic electron flow utilizes light at 700 nm. d. Chemiosmosis is unique to noncyclic electron flow. e. Only cyclic electron flow can operate in the absence of photosystem II. ANSWER: e. 11. Which of the following does NOT occur during the Calvin Cycle? a. carbon fixation b. oxidation of NADPH c. release of oxygen split from water d. regeneration of the CO2 acceptor using ribisco e. consumption of 9 ATP per turn of the cycle ANSWER: c. Answers to Quiz 4. 1. Which of the following scientists discovered bacteria transformation? a. Griffin b. Crick c. Danieli d. Avery e. Morgan ANSWER: a. 2. How many nucleotide bases are there for every helical turn of DNA? a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 4 e. 20 ANSWER: c. I had meant to put in the word "pairs" so I will accept either c. or e. for this answer. 3. Using the provided mRNA codon table, if a protein had the peptide sequence phe-pro-lys, which of the following could be the proper 5' to 3' DNA template (remember antiparallel)? a. uuc ccu aaa b. uuu cca aag c. ttt agg gaa d. aaa ttc ggg e. more than one of the above ANSWER: c. 4. Which of the following joins the Okazaki fragments together in the lagging strand during DNA replication? a. primase b. ligase c. RNA primer d. DNA polymerase I e. DNA polymerase II ANSWER: b. 5. Nucleotides are added to the elongating DNA at a. the transcription factor b. the replication fork c. the helicase d. the leading strand only e. 5' phosphate terminal ANSWER: b. 6. T or F (please circle) The synthesis of RNA under the direction of DNA is called RNA processing whereas the synthesis of a protein under the direction of mRNA is called translation. ANSWER: F 7. Using the provided mRNA codon table, what is the produced peptide (small protein) for this dna sequence? 3' taa tac tct agg tcg cat act cca gtg 5' WORK AREA - To work this problem....first start by calculating the 5' to 3' nucleotide sequence of mRNA complementary to the DNA sequence above (remember anti-parallel) = ____________________________________________________ Now use the codon table to give the protein, amino acid sequence = ________________________________________________________________________ a. met-arg-ser-ser-leu-thr-gly-his b. arg-met-arg-ser-thr-gly-his-arg c. met-his-gly-thr-leu-ser-ser-arg d. met-phe-gly-ser-ala-his-cys-his e. met-leu-pro-pro-arg-his-gly-arg ANSWER: a. 8. Which of the following is not involved in transcription of DNA to the RNA primary transcript? a. RNA primer b. RNA polymerase II c. TF = transcription factor d. TATA box e. promoter ANSWER: a. 9. During translation of mRNA to protein a. the start codon met is positioned at the A site. b. a transcription factor (TF) must bind to the large ribosomal subunit to initiate the first assembly of the ribosom. c. a release factor hydrolyzes the growing peptide by blocking the E site or exit. d. the growing peptide chain is moved from the P site to the A site when the peptide bond is formed. e. GTP catalyzes the formation of the peptide bond ANSWER: d. 10. T or F (please circle) During the process of RNA splicing, the primary transcript may be shortened by the sliceosome that removes intervening non-coding portions called exons. ANSWER: F 11. Which set of scientists creatively used radioactive labeling and a generic waring blender to determine for the first time that dna, and not protein, was the transforming material? a. Watson and Crick b. Hershey and Chase c. Avery and Chargaff d. Wilkins and Franklin e. Meselson and Stahl ANSWER: b. Answers to Quiz 5. 1. T or F (please circle) In the two chambered heart of the fishes, both the ventricle and atria of the heart contain relatively deoxygenated blood. ANSWER: T 2. Which of the following animals has no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood within the heart due to having a completely separated ventricle chambers? a. the earthworm (annelids) b. the sea star (echinoderms) c. sharks d. turtles e. one of those Gainesville reptiles ANSWER: e. 3. Blood contained in the left atria a. will pass through the tricuspid valve to reach the right ventricle b. will be squeezed out to the right ventricle during the cardiac period called systole c. would have just left the pulmonary artery d. might be picked up as the fourth sound on the stethoscope during the contractile period of the atria e. will have just passed through the aortic semilunar valve ANSWER: d. 4. If you have mitral stenosis (hardening of the mitral/bicuspid valve) you would hear irregularities during which sound of a phonocardiogram? a. S1 b. S2 c. S3 d. S4 ANSWER: a. 5. Which of the following animals use a tracheal system to breath? a. clams b. crustaceans c. frogs d. turtles e. grass hoppers ANSWER: e. 6. Which of the following vessels possess back wash valves? a. arterioles b. venules c. metaarterioles d. capillaries e. lymph nodes ANSWER: b. 7. If you centrifuged a blood sample, which of the following items would likely be at the lowest level of the test tube towards the bottom? a. platelets b. neutrophils c. unbound oxygen d. fibrin e. water ANSWER: b. 8. Which subcellular component of a neuron is responsible for integrating the incoming electrical signals? a. the dendrite b. the axon c. the axon hillock d. the synapse e. the effector ANSWER: c. 9. What is the name of the electrical signal that is the basis for all your brain thoughts on this evaluation? a. the potassium channel b. neurotransmitters c. a hyperpolarization d. the synapse e. the action potential ANSWER: e. 10. According to Boyleís Law which is a true statement with regards to respiration? a. At exhalation the diaphragm relaxes to increase the volume in the lung. b. When the external intercostals contract, air moves in due to larger lung volume. c. At inhalation, the diaphragm moves up to decrease lung volume and force air in. d. At inhalation, air moves into aveoli as they enlarge due to relaxation of the diaphragm. e. When the rib muscles fall down with gravity and move in, we take an inspiration (inhale) because the lung volume has increased. ANSWER: b. 11. Which of the following ion channels predominantly mediates depolarization or the upsweep of a neuronal action potential? a. Na channel b. K channel c. Ca channel d. Na/K ATPase pump e. a. and b. ANSWER: a. Answers to Exam 1. 1d 2b 3b 4d 5e 6e 7e 8b 9e 10a 11c 12d 13d 14c 15b 16e 17e 18a 19b 20c 21d 22a 23a 24d 25a 26e 27d 28b 29b 30a 31c 32e 33b 34d 35e 36c 37c 38c 39a 40b 41a 42b 43a 44b 45b 46b 47b 48b 49b 50a 51a 52a 53b 54b 55a 56a 57a 58a 59b 60b Answers to Exam 2. 1a 2d 3c 4e 5d 6c 7a 8b 9d 10b 11b 12e 13c 14a 15b 16e 17c 18e 19b 20c 21b 22b 23c 24b 25d 26e 27d 28d 29b 30c 31b 32d 33d 34c 35c 26a 37c 38a 39b 40e 41d 42a 43a 44a 45a 46b 47b 48a 49b 50b 51a 52a 53a Answers to Exam 3. 1d 2a 3c 4c 5d 6a 7c 8d 9d 10d 11c 12a 13c 14b 15c 16e 17b 18a 19a 20d 21e 22e 23c 24b 25c 26e 27d 28a 29b 30b 31b 32c 33c 34d 35c 36a 37e 38c 39c 40e 41a 42d 43a 44a 45b 46b 47b 48a 40a 50a 51b 52a 53a